2017 Spring #20
Your solution lists IFRS assets at 750 but the problem itself lists them as 850. The conclusion doesn't change, because either asset value is well above the boundaries for regulator action.
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Your solution lists IFRS assets at 750 but the problem itself lists them as 850. The conclusion doesn't change, because either asset value is well above the boundaries for regulator action.
Comments
Thank you for pointing that out. I have corrected it.
Do you calculate the risk margin for the 3 individual years because you're given that loss payments will occur for the next 3 years or what's the reasoning for only using the next 3 future years?
Edit: I answered my own question - the answer is yes
Ok then.